Is it proper to say the Philippines?
“Philippines” is anglicized, while “Filipino” is probably in Spanish (Spain colonized the Philippines). Because that’s the proper spelling in the country’s language. Philippines is an Americanized spelling.
Is it Philippines or Philippines’s?
I wrote: “The prescribed possessive form for countries with a plural form like the Philippines adds only the apostrophe — not apostrophe-‘s’ — for the possessive: Philippines‘.
Why is Philippines referred to as the Philippines?
The Philippines are named after King Philip II (1527-1598) of Spain. The country was discovered by the Portuguese navigator Ferdinand Magellan in 1521 (while in Spanish service). Later tension arose between Portugal and Spain and in 1542 Spain re-claimed the islands for themselves, naming them after its then king.
How do you refer to the Philippines?
Filipino is the Hispanized (or Anglicized) way of referring to both the people and the language in the Philippines. Note that it is also correct to say Filipino for a male and Filipina for a female. Never use or say Philippino, because that doesn’t sound right.
Is Philippines singular or plural?
Take note: The geographical location, the Philippines, the name of which is in plural form, is followed by the plural verb are.
What is the plural form of Filipino?
The plural form of Filipino is Filipinos.
Is Ophir Philippines?
The navigational guide started from the Cape of Good Hope in Africa to India, to Burma, to Sumatra, to Moluccas, to Borneo, to Sulu, to China, then finally Ophir which is said to be the Philippines.
Why Philippines is called the Pearl of the Orient Seas?
It was because of its well-known natural beauty. Specifically, it is called as “The Pearl of the Orient Sea” or in Spanish term, it is “Perla del Mar de Oriente” which was first used in 1751. This term became more popular because of the National hero Jose Rizal in his last poem “Mi ultimo adios” before he died in 1896.